Manor Preboards Module 4 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which description best matches the signs of a tension pneumothorax and its initial management?
• What are essential components of sepsis early management, including timeframes?
• Which of the following compounds is correctly matched with one of its therapeutic uses? I. Raloxifene: Advanced breast cancer II. Propylthiouracil : Hypothyroidism III. Finasteride: BPH IV. Metformin: PCOS
• The most stable polymorph tends to have what dissolution characteristic?
• True about vesicular transport
• Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except
• The termination of heparin activity by Protamine sulfate is the result of
• Ethyl alcohol is given in cases of ethylene glycol or methanol poisoning because it blocks the formation of the toxic metabolites.
• Also known as drug release; delivery of the active ingredient from a dosage form into solution is called?
• Which statement about laxatives is false?
• Which of the following drugs is not an SSRI?
• In atrial fibrillation, what is the target INR range for most patients taking warfarin to reduce stroke risk?
• A hyponatremia patient with confusion and seizures is treated in the ICU with what electrolyte-focused approach?
• Which statement about absorption is NOT true, given the design of drugs for systemic versus local activity and extended-release products?
• Which practice best aligns with preventing delirium in hospitalized older adults?
• Which statement best describes the typical mean arterial pressure (MAP) target during vasopressor titration?
• Edema in congestive heart failure occurs due to which mechanism, and which diuretic is commonly used to manage it?
• Which of the following best describes a method to monitor for peripheral ischemia during vasopressor therapy?
• Which of the following aminoglycosides are the most nephrotoxic?
• A patient requires 1000 mL over 8 hours. The IV set has 20 gtt/mL. What is the required drops per minute?
• How are pressure ulcers staged, and what is one nursing intervention to prevent them?
• Which statement correctly differentiates zero-order from first-order drug elimination?
• This drug is a ketone prodrug resembling Naproxen in structure and is converted into an acetic acid derivative in the body. It is the only non-acid NSAID in current use.
• True about active transport of the drug across a membrane except
• Etanercept is a TNF-α inhibitor used in autoimmune diseases. Which option correctly identifies its target?
• Which substance is commonly used as an example of zero-order elimination?
• Repaglinide is believed to work by
• These drug - adverse effect pairs are incorrect except
• Anakinra is used in rheumatoid arthritis and works by which mechanism?
• In early sepsis management, which biomarker is commonly measured to assess tissue perfusion?
• Which of the following is a common non-pharmacologic method for DVT prophylaxis?
• What is the normal mean arterial pressure (MAP) range, and what MAP is generally targeted in critically ill patients to ensure organ perfusion?
• Which adverse effects of opioids require monitoring in hospitalized patients?
• Patient MOLN arrives at the hospital and complains of mild gastrointestinal upset. Later, it was found to be caused by APAP poisoning. What is the antidote of choice for APAP poisoning?
• What is the mechanism of action of Amiodarone?
• Which of the following agents is not an example of an extended-spectrum penicillin?
• Finasteride is used to treat which condition?
• What clinical signs indicate hypovolemic shock and what is the initial management?
• What is the immediate nursing action when a transfusion reaction is suspected?
• During vasopressor therapy, which lab trend is most useful to gauge perfusion?
• Which hypoglycemic agent is contraindicated in the elderly due to a long half-life of approximately 32 hours?
• Which statement best describes the role of a sterile barrier during an invasive procedure?
• Which glucose transporter is responsible for the regulation of insulin release and glucose homeostasis, with locations in the liver, kidney, and pancreatic beta cells?
• Cromolyn sodium acts by
• Which drug is a thiazolidinedione (PPAR gamma agonist) used in type 2 diabetes?
• Repaglinide is believed to work by which action?
• Which tissue is NOT a location of the glucose transporter described as regulating insulin release and glucose homeostasis?
• Which set of signs constitutes Cushing's triad associated with increased intracranial pressure?
• Vesamicol inhibits transmitter storage by blocking which transporter?
• Which process describes the movement of a drug from the site of administration into the systemic circulation?
• Warfarin inhibits VKORC1, reducing gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues in certain coagulation factors. Which factors are affected?
• Methylphenidate and dextroamphetamine are centrally-acting sympathomimetics which may be used in which of the following conditions?
• Osmotic laxatives are described as indigestible and hydrophilic colloids that absorb water, forming a bulky, emollient gel that distends the colon and promotes peristalsis.
• Which practice most reduces infection risk for a patient with a central venous catheter?
• In the emergency setting, how is anaphylaxis managed?
• Under acetaminophen poisoning, the not-detoxified metabolite NAPQI causes damage to which organ?
• What are core principles of sterile technique for invasive procedures?
• Which cellular transporters decrease drug absorption and promote drug efflux across biological barriers?
• What are the main phases of wound healing, and name one nursing action to support healing?
• In SIADH with hyponatremia, what is the underlying mechanism and a typical nursing consideration?
• A urinalysis shows nitrites and leukocyte esterase; what diagnosis is most likely?
• Which laxative ingredient was removed from the market due to concerns about cardiac toxicity?
• Carbon monoxide exerts its toxic effects primarily by binding to which molecule?
• For severe symptomatic hyponatremia due to SIADH, what is a physician-guided intervention?
• For nephrolithiasis due to idiopathic hypercalciuria, which diuretic reduces urinary calcium excretion?
• Leflunomide’s mechanism involves inhibition of which enzyme, leading to suppression of pyrimidine synthesis?
• Which of the following combinations of drug and therapeutic use is correctly matched?
• Which drug–process pair is incorrect?
• Which of the following is used in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder?
• Which statement is true about acetaminophen when compared with aspirin?
• Desmopressin is best described as a selective agonist for which vasopressin receptor?
• What is the most important associated with Pyrazolone derivatives like Phenylbutazone which necessitated the withdrawal of a number of these drugs from the market?
• Dantrolene can be used to treat malignant hyperthermia owing to its action on calcium release. Which option lists the correct drug?
• Alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate is useful in the treatment of poisoning with I. ASA II. Salicylates III. Barbiturates IV. Morphine
• Metronidazole is effective against these types of organisms except
• Conjugation of xenobiotics with glutathione forms glutathione conjugates. These conjugates can be effluxed into bile and blood and are converted to mercapturic acid in the kidney. In which phase of metabolism does this process belong?
• Why is troponin elevation a key diagnostic marker in acute coronary syndrome?
• All these drugs work as microtubule inhibitors except which?
• Etanercept is a biologic agent that functions by inhibiting which target?
• Which agent among the following is historically linked to teratogenic limb defects when used during pregnancy?
• What is the most toxic β-blocker?
• Which statement about ARBs is correct?
• During a code, what is the recommended approach to using an AED?
• Which of these is a nucleotide-analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
• Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) presents with which typical laboratory findings?
• Macrocytic anemia is most commonly associated with deficiency of which vitamins?
• Which drug is a protease inhibitor?
• Define SIRS, sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock.
• What infection control precautions are required for suspected active tuberculosis?
• Which strategy best supports effective patient education in chronic disease management?
• Differentiate Broca's aphasia from Wernicke's aphasia, and provide one communication strategy for patients with Broca's aphasia?
• Vitamin K–dependent gamma-carboxylation is required for which coagulation factors?
• ABG interpretation: pH 7.25, PaCO2 32 mmHg, HCO3- 14 mEq/L. What is the acid-base disorder and compensation status?
• Which option correctly identifies a pharmacologic strategy for DVT prophylaxis?
• Tranexamic acid is a synthetic analog of which amino acid?
• Which of the following is correct?
• Which option correctly lists the four phases of wound healing and includes a nursing intervention to promote healing?
• Which antidote - drug pair is incorrect?
• This drug can cause Aluminum toxicity in patients with renal failure. Which drug is it?
• When initiating enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, which action is essential to prevent misplacement before starting feeds?
• What are typical signs of a postoperative pulmonary embolism and the immediate actions?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, how does potassium move with insulin therapy, and what monitoring is essential?
• Which statement correctly describes a valid approach to pharmacologic prophylaxis for DVT?
• Amiodarone prolongs the cardiac action potential by blocking which ion channels?
• Guanfacine and Guanabenz are primarily agonists at which receptors?
• Which action is appropriate if norepinephrine extravasation is suspected at the IV site?
• Glutathione conjugation belongs to which phase of metabolism according to the source?
• This drug works as a competitive reversible inhibitor of DPP-4, reducing enzymatic inactivation of the incretin hormone, GLP-1.
• Leflunomide inhibits which enzyme to exert its effects?
• Which local anesthetic is a para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) derivative?
• The interaction between grapefruit juice and certain antihistamines leading to cardiotoxicity is explained by inhibition of which enzyme?
• Which of the following is essential to include in a patient handoff or bedside report?
• Which metal accumulates in Wilson's disease due to defective export into bile?
• Which of the following is an NNRTI?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which of the following combinations is typical?
• Which statements about drug protein binding are true?
• Advantages of Acetaminophen over Aspirin include the following except
• In SIADH with hyponatremia, what is a common nursing intervention?
• This drug antagonizes the RYR1 receptors of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, decreasing calcium release and is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
• An advantage of Salmeterol over Isoproterenol in the treatment of bronchial asthma is that Salmeterol:
• In the emergency management of anaphylaxis, which statement is most appropriate?
• Which antibacterial drug class is not used primarily to inhibit protein synthesis?
• Distinguish macrocytic and microcytic anemia and give a common cause for each.
• Metabolic food reactions differ from other adverse reactions because toxicity occurs only when the food is eaten in excess and improperly prepared. Lima beans and related seeds cause cyanosis by which mechanism?
• In evaluating the adequacy of perfusion while on vasopressor therapy, which indicator is most directly tied to tissue perfusion?
• Which ADP receptor inhibitor binds reversibly to their receptor?
• A body mass index (BMI) of 29.7 is interpreted as which category?
• Cyanogenic foods release hydrogen cyanide upon contact with stomach acid. Which mechanism describes this release?
• Astemizole and Terfenadine have been withdrawn due to intrinsic cardiotoxicity. The interaction risk with grapefruit juice or erythromycin is explained by which mechanism?
• What is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement before feeding?
• In the event of a fire, which action should the nurse perform first?
• What is the primary purpose of a Foley catheter and what common complication do nurses try to prevent?
• Which term refers to the reduction of microbial load on an inanimate surface to a level acceptable for public health purposes?
• During a code blue, list the nurse's key responsibilities.
• What is the primary purpose of daily assessment of line necessity in patients with a central venous catheter?
• Leucovorin is used as an antidote for toxicity of which agent?
• Cell cycle-specific chemotherapeutic drugs exert their action on cells traversing the cell cycle. Which of the following is not a cell cycle-specific chemotherapeutic drug?
• Which statement is true about MCV in macrocytic anemia?
• In hyponatremia management, why is careful monitoring emphasized when using hypertonic saline?
• Pamidronate sodium is indicated for the treatment of
• Which biotransformation process matures by about 2 months after birth, with immature activity linked to accumulation of a toxic acetaminophen metabolite?
• Mercapturic acid formation from glutathione conjugates in the body involves processing in which organ?
• Which drug is a DPP-4 inhibitor used to treat type 2 diabetes?
• Which receptor types are Gq protein-coupled?
• Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAGP) binds primarily which type of drugs?
• Which ECG finding is classically associated with hypokalemia?
• List common signs of dehydration and two nursing interventions to correct fluid deficit.
• Which statement about septic shock is accurate?
• Which agent was linked to a large increase in newborns with amelia or phocomelia in West Germany around 1960, along with other congenital anomalies?
• Wilson's disease is a rare genetic disorder characterized by failure to export which metal into bile?
• True about drug distribution except
• Which of the following is an endogenous opioid?
• Which drug has keratolytic action and reduces sebum production by up to 90 percent?
• Which statements about drug protein binding are true?
• Pamidronate sodium is indicated for the treatment of Paget's disease.
• Which antibacterial drug increases the risk of developing serotonin syndrome?
• Orexigenic drugs, which include corticosteroids and many antipsychotics, have what effect?
• An antiviral drug that was found to have antiparkinsonism properties by chance is which of the following?
• Which drug is a reversible non-selective blocker of α adrenoreceptors and is used in pheochromocytoma?
• After peroral administration, drugs generally are absorbed best from the
• Which symptom most suggests superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the seven rights of medication administration?
• Draw water into the urine, without interfering with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney
• Which statement best describes a comprehensive approach to deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis in hospitalized patients?
• A CBC showing WBC 15,000/mm^3 with neutrophilia indicates which pattern?
• Long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors is linked to which electrolyte disturbance?
• Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) are less likely to cause angioedema and cough than ACE inhibitors because
• Stimulation of β-adrenoreceptor, a G-protein-linked receptor involves generation of secondary messenger/s known as
• Name at least four clinical signs that may indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
• Which of the following agents is most useful for the management of nephrolithiasis due to idiopathic hypercalciuria?
• Tetracycline may accumulate in bone because of which interaction?
• Metformin is commonly used for PCOS.
• Using the Holliday-Segar method, what is the daily maintenance fluid requirement for a 12-kg child?
• Which statements about thyroid hormones are true?
• Which statement best describes isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic intravenous fluids, with one example each and where they act in body compartments?
• Which of the following drugs works by inhibiting HIV integrase, thereby preventing DNA transfer from the viral genome?
• Which statements regarding thyroid hormones are not correct?
• Which antibacterial drug class does not work by inhibiting protein synthesis?
• What is the typical urine output target for an adult to indicate adequate kidney perfusion?
• Which of the following best describes the classification of enkephalin?
• Conscious patient with hypoglycemia should be given what initial treatment, and how much?
• Which wound-healing phase is characterized by new tissue formation and collagen deposition?
• What does the RACE acronym stand for in fire safety, and what is the nurse's role?
• Which statement about physicochemical factors altering the biological performance of drugs is correct?
• Which agent is a relatively selective vasopressin V2 receptor agonist used in pituitary diabetes insipidus and pediatric primary nocturnal enuresis?
• Bleomycin is best described as which type of chemotherapeutic agent?
• Which statement about the seven rights of medication administration is accurate?
• A given adrenergic agent induces lipolysis, release of renin, and increases myocardial contractility. These effects are attributed to which receptor type?
• Which property explains why Salmeterol is preferred over Isoproterenol for long-term asthma control?
• What is a reasonable daily protein intake to support wound healing in a hospitalized adult?
• What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers and one common adverse effect to watch for?
• NAPQI is a metabolite produced in small amounts and detoxified in the liver; under conditions such as acetaminophen poisoning when detoxification is insufficient, it causes severe liver damage. What does NAPQI stand for?
• Enkephalin is an example of which type of molecule?
• Lesions characterized by expansive growth, frequently exhibiting slow rates of proliferation that do not invade surrounding tissues